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Sirius1
10-05-2007, 10:15 PM
Translation 1: Bad statements are for bad people (or bad women for bad men) and bad people for bad statements (or bad men for bad women). Good statements are for good people (or good women for good men) and good people for good statements (or good men for good women), such (good people) are innocent of (each and every) bad statement which they say, for them is Forgiveness, and Rizqun Karim (generous provision i.e. Paradise).
24:26

Translation 2: Women impure are for men impure, and men impure for women impure and women of purity are for men of purity, and men of purity are for women of purity: these are not affected by what people say: for them there is forgiveness and a provision honorable.
24:26

It’s understood that this Ayah was revealed when people were accusing Aisha (ra) of ill-conduct. The question is…How does this ayah apply to general Muslims?

Questions regarding Translation 1:

In a premarital sense, does this mean that bad/good women should marry bad/good men, respectively? If someone picks a spouse of the opposite kind (i.e. bad person picks good person or vice versa), is that considered ‘wrong’?
How is the classification of bad/good supposed to take place? Is it how our family/neighbors define us (as they are the ones who live closest to us) or should one do a personal evaluation of himself to see where he fits in?
Considering the premise of translation #1 (bad women for bad men and good women for good men), how would the following real life occurrences, be explained?


Soft and gentle women ending up with 'destined' wife-abusers.
Accommodating men ending up with 'destined' ungrateful wives.
Question regarding Translation 2:

Considering the premise of translation #2 (impure women for impure men and pure women for pure men), how would the following real life occurrence, be explained?


Virgins ending up with Zaanis
InshaAllah lets leave this question for Shaykh Yaser to respond to. If you have a real answer (i.e. not an assumption or a guess), then you can go ahead and post it.

Jazakallah Khair

AbdulHasib
10-06-2007, 09:36 AM
in Ibn Kathir,

قال ابن عباس: الخبيثات من القول للخبيثين من الرجال، والخبيثون من الرجال للخبيثات من القول، والطيبات من القول للطيبين من الرجال، والطيبون من الرجال للطيبات من القول، قال: ونزلت في عائشة وأهل الإفك ـ وبه قال مجاهد وعطاء وسعيد بن جبير والشعبي والحسن البصري ـ واختاره ابن جرير، ووجهه بأن الكلام القبيح أولى بأهل القبح من الناس، والكلام الطيب أولى بالطيبين من الناس، فما نسبه أهل النفاق إلى عائشة من كلام هم أولى به، وهي أولى بالبراءة والنزاهة منهم! ولهذا قال تعالى: {أولئك مبرءون مما يقولون}.

Ibn `Abbas said, "Evil words are for evil men, and evil men are for evil words; good words are for good men and good men are for good words. This was revealed concerning `A'ishah and the people of the slander.'' This was also narrated from Mujahid, `Ata', Sa`id bin Jubayr, Ash-Sha`bi, Al-Hasan bin Abu Al-Hasan Al-Basri, Habib bin Abi Thabit and Ad-Dahhak, and it was also the view favored by Ibn Jarir.

He interpreted it to mean that evil speech is more suited to evil people, and good speech is more suited to good people.

What the hypocrites attributed to `A'ishah was more suited to them, and she was most suited to innocence and having nothing to do with them.

And it's what Qurtubi mentions as وقال مجاهد وابن جبير وعطاء وأكثر المفسرين

"And Mujahid, Ibn Jubayr, and 'Ata said this, as well as the majority of the Mufasireen"

As for the tafseer of Zayd ibn Aslam (rahimahullah) it emphasizes the point that 'Aishah radyAllahu a'nh was free from the slander as Allah says as she was deserving of marrying the Prophet salAllahu 'alaihee wa sallam. It's an interpretation that emphasizes and stresses the meaning of the aya as it applied to the incident of Ifk.

Also a side note, when one is deriving a hukm or deriving interpretation, when looking into the works of tafsir, we dont' look at translations of the meaning. We have to go back to the arabic of both the Qur'an and the works in tafsir (since there maybe a mis translation of the works of tasfir or the wording is confusing).

WAllahu 'Alam

Sirius1
10-06-2007, 10:03 AM
Jazakallah khair for the input. Also a side note, when one is deriving a hukm or deriving interpretation, when looking into the works of tafsir, we dont' look at translations of the meaning. We have to go back to the arabic of both the Qur'an and the works in tafsir (since there maybe a mis translation of the works of tasfir or the wording is confusing).Since I don't understand Arabic, maybe a knowledgeable Arabic speaking person can provide answers to the Q's that have been posted after looking into the arabic texts, inshaAllah.

Yusrah Uthman
10-09-2007, 07:49 AM
as salamu aleykum

Jazakallahu khairan brother. I never knew that bro. You learn something new every day, huh? MashAllah, you cleared some flugg in that tasfir.

ma'salama